Question of CPPI/ TIPP with volatility targeting

Course Name: Position Sizing in Trading, Section No: 18, Unit No: 12, Unit type: Quiz

Max drawdown 25% → multiplier m=4
Cushion $10,000
Floor $90,000
The risky asset allocation would therefore be $40,000

Volatility target: 25%
Current volatility: 5%
Leverage would therefore be 5x.

If we combine the CPPI/ volatility targeting together, shouldn’t the final risk asset allocation be 5 x $40,000 = $200,000 ?

According to the TIPP with volatility targeting Python Notebook (Section 18, Unit 19):
adj_multiplier = m * leverage_df.iloc[row - 1]

Hi,

We are looking into this and will get back to you.

Hi,

Thank you for pointing this out. After going through the unit, we have made the required changes.
Once again, thank you for the inputs.